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Code d'Examen: HS330
Nom d'Examen: American College (Fundamentals of Estate Planning test)
Questions et réponses: 400 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is an example of a taxable gift for federal gift tax purposes?
A. A father gives his 19-year-old daughter a note promising to give her his Rolls Royce when she reaches
the age of 21.
B. Instead of parents paying an outside executive $60,000, a son runs their business for 8 months without
charging a fee.
C. The parents of a married son permit their son and his family to use a summer cottage that rents for
$3,000 per month on a rent-free basis.
D. A father cancels a $50,000 note his daughter gave him when he made a loan to her 2 years ago.
Answer: D

American College   HS330   certification HS330

NO.2 The following are facts concerning a decedent's estate:
An executor elects to value the assets of the estate at the alternative valuation date 6 months after death.
Which of the following statements concerning the estate tax value of assets included in this estate is
correct?
Taxable estate $1,700,000
Pre-1977 taxable gifts 200,000
Post-1976 adjusted taxable gifts 50,000
Post-1976 gifts made to a qualified
charity
100,000
The tentative tax base of this estate is
A. $1,700,000
B. $1,750,000
C. $1,850,000
D. $1,900,000
Answer: B

American College examen   certification HS330   HS330   certification HS330
A. An annuity included in the gross estate that diminishes with the mere passage of time is includible at
the date of death value.
B. Property sold before the alternate valuation date is valued at the alternate valuation date.
C. Property that has increased in value since the date of death may be valued at the date of death if the
executor so elects.
D. Property distributed under the will before the alternate valuation date is valued at the date of death.
Answer:A

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4. A father and son have been farming land owned by the father for the past 12 years. Just prior to his
death, the father was offered $1,200,000 for his farm because of its possible use as a shopping center.
The son would like to continue to farm the land if it can be included in his father's estate at its current use
value. Additional facts are:
1.Average annual gross rentals from nearby farms of similar acreage are $56,000.
2.Average annual state and local real estate taxes on the farm are $8,000.

NO.3 The interest rate for loans from the Federal Land Bank is 8 percent.
For federal estate tax purposes, the farm method valuation formula would result in a current use value for
the farm of
A. $500,000
B. $600,000
C. $700,000
D. $820,000
Answer: B

American College   HS330   HS330 examen   HS330   HS330
5. Which of the following types of real property ownership will be deemed to be a tenancy in common?
A. Two brothers own equal amounts of all the common stock in a corporation, the only asset of which is
real property.
B. Two brothers own equal undivided interests in a piece of real property, with each brother being able to
divest himself of his interest by sale, gift, or will.
C. Two brothers are equal partners in a general partnership that owns a piece of real property used in the
partnership business.
D. Two brothers own equal fractional interests in a piece of real property and at the death of one of the
brothers the survivor will own the entire piece of property.
Answer: B

American College   HS330   HS330   HS330   HS330   HS330
6. Which of the following statements concerning property ownership by a married couple residing in a
community-property state is correct?
A. All property owned by the couple is community property.
B. Community property loses its identity when a couple moves from a community-property state to a
common-law state.
C. Property inherited by one spouse during a marriage becomes community property.
D. Income earned by one spouse becomes community property.
Answer: D

American College   HS330   HS330
7. Which of the following statements concerning a simple trust is correct?
A. Income and principal may be distributed to a qualified charity.
B. It receives a special tax deduction for income distributed to its beneficiaries.
C. Income is accumulated at the discretion of the trustee.
D. It limits the number of permissible beneficiaries.
Answer: B

American College   HS330   HS330
8. On the advice of their attorney and accountant, Betsy and John have decided to make substantial
transfers. They would like to pass most of their considerable wealth to their grandchildren. Which of the
following statements concerning gifts made to their grandchildren is correct?
A. The GSTT annual exclusion may be utilized by Betsy and John for each grandchild during lifetime and
at death.
B. The value of Betsy and John's GSTT exemption amounts are slightly increased when used at death
rather than during lifetime.
C. The GSTT annual exclusion is unavailable for years in which Betsy and John make tuition gifts for the
grandchildren.
D. Betsy and John may elect to split any GSTT transfers to the grandchildren.
Answer: D

American College   HS330 examen   certification HS330
9.The decedent, D, died this year. The facts concerning D estate are:
On January 1, 2004 a father gave his daughter a $200,000 straight (ordinary) life insurance policy on his
life.
Premiums are paid annually. The pertinent facts about the policy are:
Date of issue: July 1, 1992
Premium paid on July 1, 2003 $3,200
Gross estate $3,400,000
Marital deduction 0
Charitable deduction 600,000
Funeral & administration
expenses
80,000
Gifts made after 1976 170,000
State death taxes payable 192,000
What is D taxable estate?
A. $2,138,000
B. $2,358,000
C. $2,528,000
D. $2,720,000
Answer: C

American College examen   certification HS330   HS330 examen   HS330
10.Terminal reserve on July 1, 2003 20,000 Terminal reserve on July 1, 2004 24,000 What is the value of
the policy for federal gift tax purposes?
A. $ 21,600
B. $ 23,200
C. $ 23,600
D. $200,000
Answer: C

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11. A married man has two adult sons. His entire estate is in excess of $1,500,000 and consists entirely of
probate assets. He wants to make certain that if he predeceases his wife she will receive all estate
income as long as she lives, and the assets remaining at her death will pass equally to their two sons. He
wants to pass all assets to this wife and sons as free of federal estate taxes as possible. To best
accomplish these objectives, the man should include which of the following estate plans in his will?
A. Establish a QTIP trust for half his estate and bequeath the remainder to his wife
B. Establish a marital deduction trust with a general power of appointment for half his estate and place the
remainder in a QTIP trust
C. Establish a bypass trust equal to the applicable exclusion amount and place the remainder of his
estate in a QTIP trust
D. Establish a QTIP trust for his entire estate
Answer: C

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12. Among the assets in a decedent's gross estate is stock in a closely held corporation that was left to a
nephew. The interest passing to the nephew is required to bear the burden of all estate taxes and
expenses. The relevant facts about this
estate are:
Adjusted gross estate $1,200,000
Fair market value of stock in the
closely held corporation 500,000
Administration and funeral
expenses
25,000
State inheritance taxes 40,000
Federal estate taxes 160,000
What amount of closely held corporate stock may be redeemed under IRC Section 303 so that the
redemption will be treated as a sale or exchange rather than a dividend distribution?
A. 0
B. $ 65,000
C. $225,000
D. $500,000
Answer: C

American College examen   HS330   HS330 examen   certification HS330
13. A married man died this year leaving a gross estate of $3,200,000. Additional facts concerning his
estate are: Administration expenses and debts $ 250,000 Marital deduction 1,200,000 Applicable credit
amount (2005) 555,800 Applicable exclusion amount (2005) 1,500,000 State death taxes payable 20,400
Under the Unified Rate Schedule for computing estate taxes if the amount with respect to which the
tentative tax to be computed is over $1,000,000 but not over $1,250,000, the tentative tax is $345,800,
plus 41 percent of the excess of such amount over $1,000,000. If the amount is over $1,250,000 but not
over $1,500,000, the tentative tax is then $448,300, plus 43 percent of the excess of such amount over
$1,250,000. If the amount is over $1,500,000 but not over $2,000,000, the tentative tax is then $555,800
plus 45% of the excess of such amount over $1,500,000. Based on these facts, the net federal estate tax
payable is
A. 0
B. $103,320
C. $123,720
D. $128,280
Answer: B

American College   HS330   certification HS330   HS330   HS330
14. Which of the following statements concerning both estates and complex trusts is correct?
A. Both must have more than one beneficiary.
B. Both come into being by operation of law.
C. Both are monitored by the courts.
D. Both are required to file income tax returns.
Answer: D

American College   HS330   HS330 examen   HS330
15. A widow made the following cash gifts during the current year: Donee Amount of Gift
A qualified charity $40,000
A close friend 30,000
Her sister 5,000
Her daughter 15,000
Her brother 10,000
The total amount of the taxable gifts made this year was
A. $23,000
B. $45,000
C. $52,000
D. $95,000
Answer:A

American College examen   certification HS330   certification HS330
16. A man is planning to establish and fund a 20-year irrevocable trust for the benefit of his two sons,
aged 19 and 22, and plans to give the trustee power to sprinkle trust income. From the standpoint of
providing federal income, gift, and estate tax savings, which of the following would be the best choice of
trustee?
A. The grantor of the trust
B. The grantor's 70-year-old father
C. The grantor's 22-year-old son
D. A bank or trust company
Answer: D

American College   HS330 examen   HS330   HS330
17. A man died in February of this year. Last year, when he learned that he had a terminal illness, he
immediately made the following gifts and filed the required gift tax return:
Fair Market Value
Gift of listed stock to a
qualified charity $100,000
Gift of listed bonds to his wife 200,000
Gift of a boat to his son 10,000
Gift of a sports car to his daughter
10,000
What amount must be brought back to the man's estate as an adjusted taxable gift in the calculation of his
federal estate taxes?
A. 0
B. $ 90,000
C. $280,000
D. $320,000
Answer:A

American College   HS330 examen   HS330
18. A widower dies leaving a net probate estate of $300,000. At the time of his death, his descendants are
as follows:
A son, Joe, who has no children;
A deceased daughter, Mary, whose two children, Irene and Sally, survive; and
A daughter, Anne, who has one child, Harry
Assuming that the widower's will provides for the distribution of his assets in equal shares to his children,
per stirpes,
which of the following correctly states the amounts each descendant will receive?
A. $100,000 to Joe, $50,000 to Irene, $50,000 to Sally, and $100,000 to Anne
B. $100,000 to Joe, $50,000 to Irene, $50,000 to Sally, $50,000 to Anne, and $50,000 to Harry
C. $75,000 to Joe, $75,000 to Irene, $75,000 to Sally, and $75,000 to Anne
D. $60,000 to Joe, $60,000 to Irene, $60,000 to Sally, $60,000 to Anne, and $60,000 to Harry
Answer:A

American College   HS330 examen   HS330   certification HS330
19. Which of the following areas of consideration present common ethical issues for the estate planner?
A. Contracts
B. Compatibility
C. Consistency
D. Compensation
Answer: D

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20. A father deeded a house as a gift to his daughter in 1990 but retained the right to live in it until his
death. He died this
year, while still living in the house. The following are relevant facts:
The father bought the property in 1980 for $140,000. The fair market value of the property when the gift
was made in
1990 was $170,000. The father filed a timely gift tax return but paid no gift tax because of the applicable
credit amount.
The fair market value of the property at the father's death was $200,000. The daughter sold the property 3
months after
her father's death for $200,000. She had a gain of
A. 0
B. $130,000
C. $160,000
D. $200,000
Answer:A

American College   HS330   HS330   HS330

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-106
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Virtual Private Routed Networks)
Questions et réponses: 61 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements are true regarding P devices in an MPLS VPRN? (Choose two.)
A. Participate in service provider core routing
B. P devices are not required to be MPLS enabled. MPLS is only required on the PE devices
C. Run a common routing protocol with the CE router
D. Must support MP-BGP
E. Do not have any connections to the CE
F. Must be aware of the VPRNs
Answer: AE

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NO.2 Choose the answer that best completes the following sentence. The CE device is typically configured
with ___________________________.
A. A single routing protocol for exchanging routes with both the internal customer routers and with the PE
B. MP-BGP to exchange routes with the PE.
C. MPLS and a routing protocol for the exchange of labels and routes with the PE
D. MPLS for exchanging labels with other CE devices
E. A routing protocol for exchanging routes with the internal customer routers and a routing protocol for
exchanging routes with the PE
Answer: E

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NO.3 What are the two primary problems the service provider must consider when providing traditional
Layer 3 VPN services using only a single common routing table in the provider core? (Choose two)
A. Memory exhaustion in the provider core
B. Route leaking between the customer networks
C. CPU utilization for route processing
D. Unwanted packet forwarding between customer networks
Answer: BD

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NO.4 Which of the following terms also correctly describes a Layer 3 VPN? (Choose three)
A. VPRN
B. BGP/MPLS VPN
C. VLL
D. VPLS
E. IP-VPN
F. ePipe
Answer: ABE

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NO.5 In a VPRN the PE device is configured to run which of the following protocols? (Choose three.)
A. MP-BGP for exchanging customer routes with other PEs
B. A routing protocol for exchanging customer routes with the CE
C. MPLS for exchanging labels with other provider core devices
D. MPLS for exchanging labels with the CE devices
E. Targeted LDP for exchanging VPRN labels with other PE devices
F. A label signaling protocol for defining transport tunnels between PE and CE devices
Answer: ABC

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NO.6 When a Service Provider offers VPRN services to its customers, which of the following functions are
expected to be the responsibility of the Service Provider? (Choose three)
A. Distributing the customer generated labels between sites
B. Distributing the customer routing information between sitesDistributing the customer? routing
information between sites
C. Forwarding the customer originated data packets to the appropriate destination
D. Forwarding the provider originated data packets to the appropriate customer site
E. Providing secure layer 3 routing exchange between sites
Answer: BCE

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NO.7 Complete the following statement. In a VPRN, the label signaled by RSVP-TE is used to
____________________.
A. Identify the egress PE in the MPLS domain
B. Signal the egress VPRN ID
C. Identify the ingress PE in the MPLS domain
D. transport route updates between PEs
Answer: A

Alcatel-Lucent   certification 4A0-106   4A0-106

NO.8 What are the main functions of a Layer 3 VPN? (Choose three).
A. Distributing customer routing information between sites
B. Forwarding customer data packets
C. Providing an integrated billing solution
D. Maintaining separation between distinct customer networks
E. Allowing the implementation of Layer 3 devices in the provider core
Answer: ABD

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-106   4A0-106 examen

NO.9 In a traditional layer 3 VPN which of the following will be an issue when there is overlapping address
space between two customers? Choose the best answer.
A. There will be increased memory usage on the PE
B. There will be increased CPU utilization on the PE
C. The CE will reject the overlapping prefix
D. The PE will not recognize the prefixes as being different
E. There is no issue with overlapping address space in a traditional Layer 3 VPN
Answer: D

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NO.10 Complete the following statement. In a VPRN, the label signaled by RSVP-TE is used to
____________________.
A. Identify the egress PE in the MPLS domain
B. Signal the egress VPRN ID
C. Identify the ingress PE in the MPLS domain
D. transport route updates between PEs
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 3M0-211
Nom d'Examen: 3COM (Certified Enterprise LAN Specialist )
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three are recommended guidelines for an XRN network? (Choose three)
A. Only enable Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) or Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
on edge switches
B. Do not insert Fabric interconnect Modules into the Super Stack 3 Switch 4900 or
Switch 40x0 switches
C. Run the same version of the Gigabit Multilayer Switching (MS) Software (4Xor
higher) across the fabric
D. Use fault-tolerant 3Comhardware, i.e the Switch 40x0 family that provides additional
levels of hardware fault tolerance
E. The XRN Fabric Modules should be installed while the fabric switch powered on. Hot
swapping XRN Fabric Modules is also recommended in the event of a failure
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 Which command shows the Quality of Service (QoS) settings for interface Modules
#2 Ethernet port #6 on the Switch 7700?
A. display qos Ethernet 6/2 all
B. display qos Ethernet 2/0/6 all
C. display qos-interface Ethernet 2/0/6 all
D. display qos-interface Ethernet 6/0/2 all
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which component of XRN technology is defined as "A set of interconnected
switches that support Distributed Device Management (DDM), Distributed Link
Aggregation (DLA) and Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)"?
A. XRN Interconnect
B. XRN Distributed Fabric
C. XRN Interconnect Fabric
D. XRN Distributed Software
Answer: B

3COM   certification 3M0-211   certification 3M0-211

NO.4 Which two are functions of Switch 40x0 Family Multinetting? (Choose two)
A. Automatically assigns multiple VLANs on each router interface
B. Floods traffic from different subnets on the same broadcast domain
C. Enables configuration of multiple router interfaces for each VLan/broadcast domain
D. Enables multiple VLANs/broadcast domains to be configured for each router interface
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 Which three are Quality of Service (QoS) features/functions on the Switch 8800?
(Choose three)
A. Has eight output queues per port
B. Supports Differentiated Services (DiffServ)prioritization
C. Uses a Randam Early Detection (RED) queue prioritization
D. Uses a Weihted Random Early Detection (WRED) queue prioritization
E. Can configure the priority queues "globally" across all I/O interfaces on a switch
F. Uses Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) to allocate bandwidth for high-priority
applications
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.6 Which three are true statements regarding 10 Gigabit technology and/or 3Com
products? (Choose three)
A. The 3 Com XFP 10G Fiber Transceivers use LC connects
B. IEEE 802.3X defines the 10GBASE-CX4 standard for Twin axial
C. 3Com supports 10G interface Modules for both the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800
D. The 10GBASE-T standard requires four-pair Category 5 or two-pair Category 6 UTP
wiring
Answer: A,B,C

3COM   3M0-211 examen   3M0-211   3M0-211 examen   3M0-211

NO.7 What is the benefit of using the Switch 40x0 Family's Spanning Tree Ignore/Disable
feature?
A. Prevents disassociation of Layer 2 traffic from Layer 3 traffic.
B. Enables use of a routing protocol at Layer 2 to make forwarding decisions
C. Enables use of spanning Tree Protocol (STP) at Layer 3 to prevent loops in the
network
D. Supports use of routing paths at Layer 3, while Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
manages Layer 2 switched links
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which two should be verified on either the Switch 7700 or the Switch 8800 when the
network is experiences a RIP problem? (Choose two)
A. Check if BP is enabled on the switches using RIP
B. Check if the RIP versions are the same on the router interfaces
C. Use the "display RIP-statistics" command to check all RIP routes on the switch
D. Use the "display RIP packet" command to check if the switch is sending/receiving RIP
updates
E. Use the "debugging RIP packet" command to check if the switch is sending/receiving
RIP updates
Answer: B,E

3COM   certification 3M0-211   3M0-211   3M0-211

NO.9 Which three are security-design features that can be employed in enterprise
networks to improve security? (Choose three)
A. Enable IEEE 802 d link aggregation
B. Turn off IGMP snooping on all access-layer switches
C. Provide security for active devices using local or RADIUS authentication
D. Support IEEE 802.1X Network Login for authentication and authorization
E. Provide separate VLANs for management and wireless users with a VLAN-centric
design
F. Employee TCP Windowing and or IEEE802.3X Flow Control to minimize effects of
network attacks
Answer: C,D,E

certification 3COM   3M0-211   3M0-211

NO.10 Which two rules must be followed when configuring Link Aggregation groups on
the Switch 7700 1000BASE-T and 1000BASE-X modules? (Chosse two)
A. The Linux Aggregation group can start on any port.
B. All the ports in a Link Aggregation group must be consecutive
C. A single Link Aggregation group can span multiple Interface Modules
D. A maximum of eight ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation group
E. A maximum of twelve ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation roup
Answer: A,B

3COM   3M0-211 examen   3M0-211   3M0-211

NO.11 Which three components are required to create a local XRN solution (excluding the
appropriate 3Com switches? (Choose three)
A. 3Com Network Supervisor
B. XRN Fabric interconnect Modules
C. High-Bandwidth interconnect Cable
D. Gigabit Multilayer Switching Software V3.x
E. Gigabit Ethernet Layer switching modules
Answer: B,C,D

3COM   3M0-211   3M0-211   3M0-211   certification 3M0-211

NO.12 Which three are key requirements for the Access Layer (edge) of the network?
(Choose three)
A. Multilayer traffic prioritization
B. Multiple priority queues per port
C. Hardware-based Access Control List (ACLs)
D. Rate limiting and remarking for outgoing traffic.
E. MAC address authorization or IEEE 802.1X Network Login
F. Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) bandwidth allocation
Answer: A,B,E

3COM examen   3M0-211 examen   3M0-211 examen

NO.13 Which four are Switching Fabric features/Functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose
four)
A. Each Switch Fabric has a data channel to every module
B. Supports a hot-swappable, load-balancing Switch Fabric.
C. There is a data channel between the two Switch Fabrics.
D. Each Switch Fabric has a management channel to every module
E. Supports a hot-standby, hot-swappable redundant Switch Fabric
F. The master Switch Fabric is always set to slot #1 unless the fabric in slot #1 fails
G. The master Switch Fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire
chassis
Answer: A,B,C,E

certification 3COM   3M0-211   3M0-211

NO.14 What is the maximum number of Linux Aggregation load-balancing groups
supported on the Switch 7700?
A. 4 groups
B. 13 groups
C. 24 groups
D. 64 groups
E. 128 groups
Answer: D

3COM   certification 3M0-211   3M0-211   3M0-211

NO.15 Which Switch 7700 command would show if Port#4 on Ethernet Module #2 is a
member of a Link Aggregation (LA) group and is the "LA Master Port"?
A. display interface Ethernet 2/4
B. display interface Ethernet 2/04
C. display interface Ethernet 4/0/2
D. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/4
E. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/0/4
F. display link-aggregation Ethernet 4/0/2
Answer: B

certification 3COM   certification 3M0-211   3M0-211 examen   3M0-211 examen

NO.16 Which three are benefits/features of the 3Com XRN technology? (Choose three)
A. Ensure continuous network availability
B. Supports enhanced network performance
C. Can be created using any IP-based switch
D. Create a path for future-proofing the network
E. Eliminates the need for hardware redundancy to achieve maximum network resiliency
Answer: A,B,D

3COM   3M0-211   certification 3M0-211   certification 3M0-211   certification 3M0-211   3M0-211

NO.17 Exhibit:
Which three Ethernet modes are supported on the Switch 7700 8-port
1000BASE-T(3c16859)Interface Module? (Choose three)
A. 10 Mbps in full duplex only
B. 10 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
C. 100 Mbps in full duplex mode only
D. 100 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
E. 1000 Mbps in full duplex mode only
F. 1000 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
Answer: B,D,E

certification 3COM   3M0-211   3M0-211 examen   3M0-211

NO.18 Which two should you verify on either the Switch 7700 or the Switch 8800 if the
network is experiencing an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) problem? (Choose
two)
A. OSPF is enabled on all switch ports
B. VRRP is properly configured on the switch ports supporting OSPF
C. The Link State Database is the same for all routers in an OSPF area
D. The switch is sending/receiving OSPF Hello packets and Link State updates
Answer: C,D

3COM   certification 3M0-211   3M0-211   3M0-211

NO.19 The Switch 7700 or Switch 8800 can be used as the primary authentication service
or as a backup if the RADIUS server group is unavailable.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

certification 3COM   3M0-211   3M0-211   3M0-211   certification 3M0-211

NO.20 Which three are advantages of using 3Com's XRN Distribution Resilient Routing
(DRR) over Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)? (Choose three)
A. DRR is easy to configure and administer, VRRP is more complex to manage
B. DRR supports both IP unicast and IP multicast traffic, VRRP only supports IP unicast
routing
C. DRR fast failover is less than five seconds, VRRP fast failover can take as long as 60
seconds
D. DRR distributes routing table updates only, VRRP distributes the entire routing table
to update other devices
E. DRR distributes routing across all switches in the XRN Distributed Fabric on the
router interfaces, VRRP uses a single Master router for all routing
Answer: A,B,E

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Code d'Examen: ICYB
Nom d'Examen: IASSC (IASSC Certified Lean Six Sigma Yellow Belt)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 The DMAIC approach to problem solving stands for Define, __________, Analyze, Improve and
Control.
A. Manage
B. Measure
C. Memorize
D. Manipulate
Answer: B

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NO.2 When we assess the Voice of the Customer we are attempting to determine the gaps in our
processes between “what is” and __________________.
A. “What isn’t”
B. “What will make money”
C. “What will cost less”
D. “What should be”
Answer: D

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NO.3 Benefits and working conditions would be primarily the concern of which of the following?
A. Voice of the Customer
B. Voice of the Employee
C. Voice of the Business
D. Voice of the Process
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following would likely not be a CTQ (Critical-to-Quality) for the purchase of a
product?
A. Functionality
B. Durability
C. Dependability
D. None
Answer: D

IASSC examen   certification ICYB   ICYB   ICYB   certification ICYB

NO.5 Voice of the Customer is a Lean Six Sigma technique to determine the ___________ attributes
of
a product or service.
A. Desirable
B. Beneficial
C. Critical-to-Quality
D. Preferred
Answer: C

IASSC   ICYB   ICYB   ICYB   ICYB

NO.6 In the expression Y = f(Xn) Y , the output, is the ___________ variable and Xn, the inputs, are
the
__________ variables.
A. Independent, dependent
B. Individual, multiple
C. Sole, multiple
D. Dependent, independent
Answer: D

IASSC   ICYB   ICYB examen   certification ICYB

NO.7 Six Sigma refers to a process whose output has at least 95% of its data points within 6
Standard
Deviations from the Mean.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

IASSC   ICYB   ICYB   certification ICYB   certification ICYB   ICYB

NO.8 Training cost is $3,000 and a project required an initial investment of $12,000. If the project
yields
monthly savings of $1,800 beginning after 3 months, what is the payback period in months (before
money costs and taxes)?
A. 4.17
B. 8.33
C. 11.33
D. 28.28
Answer: C

certification IASSC   ICYB   ICYB examen

NO.9 The ROI for a project is a measurement metric that stands for Return on Investment and is one
of
the methods used to measure the success of a Lean Six Sigma project.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

IASSC   certification ICYB   ICYB   ICYB examen

NO.10 When a process has proven itself to function at a Six Sigma level this means there are less than
________ defects per million opportunities.
A. 1.7
B. 2.6
C. 3.4
D. 10
Answer: C

IASSC examen   ICYB examen   ICYB examen   ICYB examen

Le Pass4Past possède une équipe d'élite qui peut vous offrir à temps les matériaux de test Certification IASSC ICYB. En même temps, nos experts font l'accent à mettre rapidement à jour les Questions de test Certification IT. L'important est que Pass4Test a une très bonne réputation dans l'industrie IT. Bien que l'on n'ait pas beaucoup de chances à réussir le test de ICYB, Pass4Test vous assure à passer ce test par une fois grâce à nos documentations avec une bonne précision et une grande couverture.

Le meilleur matériel de formation examen Cloudera CCB-400

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Code d'Examen: CCB-400
Nom d'Examen: Cloudera (Cloudera Certified Specialist in Apache HBase)
Questions et réponses: 45 Q&As

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NO.1 You have one primary HMaster and one standby. Your primary HMaster Falls fails and your
client application needs to make a metadata change.
Which of the following is the effect on your client application?
A. The client will queryZooKeepertofind the location of the new HMaster and complete the
metadata change.
B. The client will make the metadata change regardless of the slate of the HMaster.
C. The new HMaster will notify the client and complete the metadata change.
D. Theclientapplication will fail with a runtime error.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You have an "Employees" table in HBase. The Row Keys are the employees' IDs. You would like
to retrieve all employees who have an employee ID between 'user_100' and 'user_110'.
The shell command you would use to complete this is:
A. scan'Employees', {STARTROW =>'user_100', STOPROW =>'user_111'}
B. get'Employees', {STARTROW =>'user_100', STOPROW =>'user_110'}
C. scan'Employees', {STARTROW =>'user_100', SLIMIT => 10}
D. scan'Employees', {STARTROW =>'user_100', STOPROW =>'user_110'}
Answer: D

Cloudera examen   certification CCB-400   CCB-400

NO.3 You have an average key-value pair size of 100 bytes.
Your primary access is random needs on the table.
Which of the following actions will speed up random reading performance on your cluster?
A. Turn off WAL on puts
B. Increase the number of versions kept
C. Decrease the block size
D. Increase the block size
Answer: D

Cloudera   CCB-400 examen   CCB-400   certification CCB-400

NO.4 Under default settings, which feature of HBase ensures that data won't be lost in the event of
a Region Server failure?
A. AllHBase activity is written to the WAL, which is stored in HDFS
B. All operations are logged on theHMaster.
C. HBase is ACID compliant, which guarantees that itis Durable.
D. Data is stored on the local filesystem of the RegionServer.
Answer: A

Cloudera   CCB-400   CCB-400   CCB-400   CCB-400 examen

NO.5 The cells in a given row have versions that range from 1000 to 2000. You execute a delete
specifying the value 3000 for the version.
What is the outcome?
A. The delete fails with an error.
B. Only cells equal to the Specified version are deleted.
C. The entire row is deleted.
D. Nothing in the row is deleted.
Answer: C

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Pass4Test offre de Cloudera CCA-470 matériaux d'essai

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Code d'Examen: CCA-470
Nom d'Examen: Cloudera (Cloudera Certified Administrator for Apache Hadoop CDH4 Upgrade Exam (CCAH))
Questions et réponses: 87 Q&As

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NO.1 What does CDH packaging do on install to facilitate Kerberos security setup?
A. Automatically configure permissions for log files at $MAPPED_LOG_DIR/userlogs
B. Creates and configures you kdc with default cluster values.
C. Creates users for hdfs and mapreduce to facilitate role assignment.
D. Creates a set of pre-configured Kerberos keytab files and their permissions.
E. Creates directories for temp, hdfs, and mapreduce with correct permissions.
Answer: C

Cloudera   CCA-470 examen   CCA-470

NO.2 Compare the hardware requirements of the NameNode with that of the DataNodes in a
Hadoop
cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1):
A. The NameNode requires more memory and requires greater disk capacity than the DataNodes.
B. The NameNode and DataNodes should the same hardware configuration.
C. The NameNode requires more memory and no disk drives.
D. The NameNode requires more memory but less disk capacity.
E. The NameNode requires less memory and less disk capacity than the DataNodes.
Answer: D

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NO.3 The failure of which daemon makes HDFS unavailable on a cluster running MapReduce v1
(MRv1)?
A. Node Manager
B. Application Manager
C. Resource Manager
D. Secondary NameNode
E. NameNode
F. DataNode
Answer: E

Cloudera   CCA-470   CCA-470 examen

NO.4 How does the NameNode know DataNodes are available on a cluster running MapReduce v1
(MRv1)
A. DataNodes listed in the dfs.hosts file. The NameNode uses as the definitive list of available
DataNodes.
B. DataNodes heartbeat in the master on a regular basis.
C. The NameNode broadcasts a heartbeat on the network on a regular basis, and DataNodes
respond.
D. The NameNode send a broadcast across the network when it first starts, and DataNodes
respond.
Answer: B

Cloudera   CCA-470   CCA-470 examen   CCA-470

NO.5 In HDFS, you view a file with rw-r--r-- set as its permissions. What does this tell you about the
file?
A. The file cannot be deleted by anyone but the owner
B. The file cannot be deleted by anyone
C. The file cannot be run as a MapReduce job
D. The file’s contents can be modified by the owner, but no-one else
E. As a Filesystem in Userspace (FUSE), HDFS files are available to all user’s on a cluster
regardless of their underlying POSIX permissions.
Answer: A

Cloudera examen   certification CCA-470   CCA-470

NO.6 You have a cluster running with the FIFO scheduler enabled. You submit a large job A to the
cluster which you expect to run for one hour. Then, you submit job B to the cluster, which you
expect to run a couple of minutes only. Let’s assume both jobs are running at the same priority.
How does the FIFO scheduler execute the jobs? (Choose 3)
A. The order of execution of tasks within a job may vary.
B. When a job is submitted, all tasks belonging to that job are scheduled.
C. Given jobs A and B submitted in that order, all tasks from job A will be scheduled before all
tasks from job B.
D. Since job B needs only a few tasks, if might finish before job A completes.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 A client wants to read a file from HDFS. How does the data get from the DataNodes to the
client?
A. The NameNode reads the blocks from the DataNodes, and caches them. Then, the application
reads the blocks from the NameNode.
B. The application reads the blocks directly from the DataNodes.
C. The blocks are sent to a single DataNode, then the application reads the blocks from that Data
Node.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Identify the function performed by the Secondary NameNode daemon on a cluster configured
to
run with a single NameNode.
A. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode performs a checkpoint operation on the files by
the NameNode.
B. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode is standby NameNode, ready to failover and
provide high availability.
C. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode performs deal-time backups of the NameNode.
D. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode servers as alternate data channel for clients to
reach HDFS, should the NameNode become too busy.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two features does Kerberos security add to a Hadoop cluster?
A. Authentication for user access to the cluster against a central server
B. Encryption for data on disk ("at rest")
C. Encryption on all remote procedure calls (RPCs)
D. User authentication on all remote procedure calls (RPcs)
E. Root access to the cluster for users hdfs and mapred but non-root acess clients
Answer: C,D

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10. Which three processes does HDFS High Availability (HA) enable on your cluster?
A. Automatically 'fail over' between NameNodes if one goes down
B. Write data to two clusterssimultaneously
C. Shut one NameNode down for maintenance without halting the cluster
D. Manually 'fail over' between NameNodes
E. Configure unlimited hot standby NameNode.
Answer: A,C,D

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Pegasystems PEGACSSA, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: PEGACSSA
Nom d'Examen: Pegasystems (PRPC v5.5 Certified Senior System Architect Exam)
Questions et réponses: 173 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement best describes the Rules Assembly Cache? (Choose One)
A. The Rules Assembly Cache is a disk based cache that stores the generated XML and resulting class
files, post compilation since what finally gets executed is XML, not java code
B. The Rules Assembly Cache is a memory based cache that reduces PegaRULES database traffic as it
contains copies of rules recently accessed or recently updated by developers
C. The Rules Assembly Cache is a memory based cache that allows Process Commander to rapidly
identify compiled Java CLASS files that correspond to compiled and assembled rules
D. The Rules Assembly Cache is a memory based cache used by PRPC to feed the Instance Cache as
the Instance Cache is the instance of a given rule for which code has been generated
Answer: C

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NO.2 What does the system pulse do? (Choose Three)
A. It is used by PRPC to synchronize changes to the Data-Agent-Schedule instances whenever a
Rule-Agent-Queue instance is modified
B. It invalidates rule caches on a per node basis using entries in the pr_sys_updatescache table
C. It processes changes to the Lucene indexes that support full text searches
D. It synchronizes the lookup list cache deletions and any rule-file-deletes
E. It is used by PRPC to send out information to PAL on a weekly basis so that performance analysis can
be performed over a period of time
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.3 PRPC can be installed using a WAR or EAR configuration. Which of the following does NOT require an
EAR configuration? (Choose One)
A. JMS message services support need to be provided
B. Support for two-phase commits is required
C. Support for EJB services need to be provided
D. J2EE security is required
E. JSR-94 support is required
Answer: E

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NO.4 Which statements in regards to commits in PRPC are false? (Choose Two)
A. All database updates require that the requestor holds a lock on the object
B. The system performs commits automatically when processing for a submit operation of a flow action
completes, for both connector and local flow actions
C. Commit operations can trigger the execution of Declare-Trigger rules
D. Assuming distributed transaction is not configured and the deferred operation list contains operations
for only one database. When the system commits all deferred operations for the requestor, if any of the
writes fail, they all fail
E. The deferred operations will be committed when you use the write-now option with the obj-save
method because this causes a commit to occur
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 Where can you view the contents of the Rule Instance Cache? (Choose One)
A. Using the SMA you can view the contents of the instance cache which are displayed in the form of an
Excel file
B. Using the Developer Portal you can view the contents of the instance cache which are displayed in the
form of an excel file and is accessed from the tools > instance cache menu
C. By viewing the XML files from the TEMPDIR\PRGenJava\XML directory
D. By viewing the XML files from the pzInsKey column by using JDBC code
Answer: A

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NO.6 PegaRULES is installed on a multi-node system, and a copy of the various caches is stored on each
node. Each of these nodes must be updated with rule changes. Which functionality in PRPC manages the
update process? (Choose One)
A. Node-Pulse
B. Rule Cache
C. System-Update
D. System-Pulse
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which one of the following statements is true regarding the PRPC threading model? (Choose One)
A. PRThreads are similar to Java threads and the types include STANDARD, DEVELOPER, and
OPENPORTAL
B. A PRThread is essentially a namespace which allows a Requestor to have separate clipboard pages
that do not interact with each other
C. Multiple PRThreads can be executed concurrently depending on whether multi-threading is enabled
D. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.8 What purpose and effect does the Obj-Refresh-and-Lock method have? (Choose One)
A. It has no effect if a lock is held and has not expired
B. It will reacquire a lock and will always refresh the contents of the object from the Database
C. If the lock is not held, the method will acquire a lock and always replace the step page contents with
the current values from the database
D. This method has been deprecated as of PRPC 5.3 in support of the Obj-Browse method which handles
refresh and locking automatically
E. This method is highly efficient and will only refresh the object if the content on the clipboard is older
than the current state in the database and will also force lockthe object regardless ofholds the lock
Answer: A

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NO.9 Why does PRPC create a Data-Agent-Queue instance when you create a Rule-Agent-Queue instance?
(Choose One)
A. Data-Agent-Queue instances are not locked so they allow you to control the behavior of Agents in a
locked RuleSet at runtime
B. Data-Agent-Queue instances are created by PRPC to support the new Queue For Agent functionality
which was provided since PRPC v5.4
C. Data-Agent-Queue instances are created automatically by PRPC whenever the Queue-For-Agent
method is used in an activity step to queue work for the Agent
D. Data-Agent-Queue instances are data instances which are used by the Queue Manager functionality to
allow for concurrent access to a queued piece of work by agents running on multiple nodes
E. Data-Agent-Queue instances represent the master definition of PRPC agents and have been
deprecated as of PRPC v5.4 in favor of using Rule-Agent-Queue
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following are virtual memory based caches? (Choose Three)
A. Rule Cache
B. Rules Assembly Cache
C. Rule Resolution Cache
D. Lookup List Cache
E. Static Content Cache
F. Dictionary Cache
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.11 Which statement is true regarding how locking works with covers? (Choose One)
A. By default, the cover does not get locked when you open a covered object, but this is configurable
B. By default, the cover is locked when you open a covered object, but this is configurable
C. The cover must always be locked when working on the cover or one of its covered work objects
because updates occur on the cover throughout processing of the covered work objects
D. Cover object locking is identical to that of other work objects, in that it is only locked when it is opened
by a requestor
Answer: B

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NO.12 A customer implementation necessitates the usage of Message-driven beans. Which of these
platforms can the solution be deployed on? (Choose Two)
A. JBoss (EAR Deployment)
B. WebLogic (WAR Deployment)
C. WebSphere (EAR Deployment)
D. Tomcat (WAR Deployment)
E. All of the above
Answer: A,C

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NO.13 What four steps must be taken to unit test a connector within a flow when the target interface/system is
not yet available? (Choose Four)
A. Create a Simulation activity
B. Set the connector to simulate in the Simulation data instance and specify the activity
C. Use Tracer and set a breakpoint
D. Define a Connect Simulation instance
E. Test the flow with simulation enabled
F. Create a new Integrator task
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.14 A PRPC installation has 3 nodes. An Agent rule has a single agent listed which takes data from an
external system. It would cause contention issues if it ran on more than one node. What is the
recommended way to ensure the agent only runs in one cluster? (Choose One)
A. Delete the Agent schedule on two nodes
B. Disable the Agent schedule on two of the nodes, either from the Agent Schedule rule form or using the
System Management Application
C. Disable the master agent on two nodes
D. In your Agent activity call a decision table to verify host name of the system (application)
Answer: B

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NO.15 What determines which table a work object is persisted to? (Choose One)
A. The Data-Admin-DB-Table record for the class group the work object belongs to and the access group
the current user belongs to
B. The RuleSet the class belongs, and Data-Admin-DB-Table definitions
C. The Data-Admin-DB-Table record associated to the class group the work object belongs to
D. The RuleSet the class belongs to
Answer: C

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NO.16 When a rule executes what is really executed.? (Choose One)
A. XML which is stored in the BLOB
B. Java code which is compiled from the XML stored in the BLOB
C. A class file which is stored in the BLOB
D. A serialized java object which is stored in the BLOB
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which methods of service integration within PRPC requires the configuration of a listener? (Choose
Two)
A. BPEL
B. HTTP
C. JMS
D. MQ
E. dotNet
Answer: C,D

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NO.18 Select the valid modes an Agent can have since PRPC 5.4? (Choose Three)
A. Normal
B. Legacy
C. Standard
D. Advanced
E. Modes are not required to be selected for Agents in PRPC 5.4
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.19 The BLOB is stored in the pzPVStream column of a table and contains the data associated with the
instance. Which two statements are false? (Choose Two)
A. Since it is a column in a table in a database, you can extract the BLOB and use it in another system
B. The BLOB contains the same clear text xml you see when clicking the rule data or the View XML option
in the clipboard
C. The PzPVStream
can be eliminated by use of simple tables (those without embedded pages and
page lists)
D. The BLOB enables a single table to store complex data structures that would normally require multiple
tables in a normalized database
Answer: A,B

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NO.20 What does the rollback method do? (Choose Two)
A. Cancels/Withdraws any pending obj-save and obj-delete methods
B. Rollback is not supported by PRPC when using a WAR deployment. The only way you can do a
rollback is by using the compensating actions method
C. Rollback is a way to rollback an object to a previous state using the History instance for a work object
D. Rolls back the deferred stack of operations for the specified page
Answer: A,D

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Code d'Examen: PEGACSSA_v6.2
Nom d'Examen: Pegasystems (Certified Senior System Architect (CSSA) Exam (PEGACSSA_v6.2))
Questions et réponses: 209 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following are most accurate regarding utility functions? (Choose Two)
A. Utility functions can use both the standard Java API and the PRPC Public API
B. Utility functions are called by utility shapes in flows
C. A new utility function should only be created if no other rules or provided functions can
accomplish a given requirement
D. Utility functions cannot access clipboard data
E. It is recommended, but not required, that utility functions belong to a library
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Your application has leveraged the parent-child mid-process dependency relationship for some
of the case types. Which of the following situations should you be concerned with and have your
design appropriately avoid? (Choose One)
A. A double instantiation of the child cases
B. A broken process
C. A deadlock condition
D. A critical performance issue
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding declarative rules? (Choose One)
A. Declarative rules run in a separate thread
B. Declarative rules can only be used for numeric computation
C. Declarative rules should only be used in pure business rules engine applications
D. Declarative rules improve developer productivity and reduce risk by making PRPC responsible for
executing the rules
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following best describes the purpose of Application Express? (Choose One)
A. To build a simple application that will be used for prototyping
B. To build an application profile that will be fed into the Application Accelerator
C. To build an enterprise-scale application that encourages reuse, including the Enterprise Class
Structure
D. To build an application "from scratch", when an Application Profile is not necessary or available
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following factors is most critical when deciding between Decision Trees, Decision
Tables and Map Values? (Choose One)
A. Which rule form the business users who will maintain the rule feel most comfortable with
B. Always consider Decision Trees before tables as they execute faster
C. Only consider MapValues when there is one input parameter
D. Which rule type provides the most optimal runtime performance
Answer: A

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NO.6 Given the following decision table:
Considering clipboard values:
.Country = 'US' .State='CA' .MonthsEmployed = 9
What result value will be returned? (Choose One)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
E. 6
Answer: A

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NO.7 What statements most accurately explains private check-outs? (Choose Two)
A. When checking in a private checked-out rule manual merging might be required
B. Use the check-out setting in the operator preferences to specify the preferred check-out method
(standard/private)
C. Private check-out is available if the rule is checked-out by someone else
D. Locking a RuleSet prevents private check-outs
E. Private check-out is only available for a user who has previously checked in the rule
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Expressions that are backward chaining (set to "Whenever Used") execute when___________.
(Choose One)
A. the target property is referenced ONLY in data transforms or activities
B. the target property is referenced in any way
C. dependent properties are changed
D. data is committed to the database
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which feature would you use to copy the highest version of every rule in a RuleSet to a new
version? (Choose One)
A. Copy/Merge RuleSet
B. Lock and Roll
C. Skim a RuleSet
D. Refactor on import
Answer: C

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NO.10 A business requirement is to attach a scanned document to work items. However, only a
select group of workers should be allowed to do so. Which attachment feature would you most
likely leverage to implement your solution? (Choose One)
A. Configure an attachment category
B. Enable attachment level security
C. Define a specific access group
D. Provide a role-based attachment security
Answer: A

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NO.11 The evaluate all rows feature of a decision table can be used to ________? (Choose One)
A. return multiple values to a declarative expression that calls it
B. return the value of the last row where all conditions are met
C. create a mechanism to calculate the sum of all matching rows
D. set the value of a specific property for all pages in a page list
Answer: C

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NO.12 In which situation can the Data Transform rule not be used? (Choose One)
A. To set some properties as the work item advances over a flow connector
B. To copy data from a connector
C. To set initial property values on a SOAP service primary page
D. Interacting with PRPC database
Answer: D

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NO.13 Given the following rules and assuming the expression is set to forward chaining (whenever
inputs change), which action will cause the expression to fire? (Choose One)
A. Changes to the values .Country or .State
B. Referencing .TaxRate
C. Referencing .Country or .State
D. Changes to the values .Country or .State as well as references to .TaxRate
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following is a RuleSet versioning practice that is prevented by PRPC? (Choose
One)
A. Skipping RuleSet versions
B. Having two unlocked versions of the same RuleSet
C. Locking a RuleSet that has rules currently checked out
D. Unlocking a RuleSet that was once locked
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following statements are true regarding declarative expressions and their scope?
(Choose Two)
A. Declarative expressions can be defined relative to the top level page OR an embedded page
B. All declarative expressions must be defined relative to the work object
C. Defining expressions directly on data classes can improve reusability of the expression
D. The Applies To class of a declarative expression must derive from Work-
E. Defining expressions directly on data classes means they will only run if the data class is a top
level page
Answer: A,C

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NO.1 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the project
manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be used to report
to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the
effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

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NO.3 As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support. Which type of tool
could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed? 1 credit
A. Review tool
B. Test execution tool
C. Static analysis tool
D. Test design tool
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which
of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved
Answer: D

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NO.5 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing needs to be
rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify THREE measures
that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always applicable in
other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.7 What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned scenario? 2
credits
A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their
status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

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NO.9 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide evidence
of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an influencing
factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

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NO.10 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring &
diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see addressed
in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

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