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Code d'Examen: ST0-174
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11.5 Technical Assessment )
Questions et réponses: 161 Q&As

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NO.1 What are two possible ways to provide incident match text information? (Select two.)
A. CSV export
B. Email notification
C. Reporting API
D. Syslog notification
E. XML export
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 Which option describes the three-tier installation type for Symantec Data Loss Prevention?
A. Install the database, the Enforce Server, and a detection server all on the same computer.
B. Install the Oracle database and the Enforce Server on the same computer, then install detection
servers on separate computers.
C. Install the Oracle Client (SQL*Plus and Database Utilities) on three detection servers.
D. Install the Oracle database, the Enforce Server, and a detection server on separate computers.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which is the correct traffic flow for the Symantec Data Loss Prevention for Tablets solution?
A. iPad > VPN > Tablet Server > Exchange Server > final destination
B. iPad > VPN > Web proxy > Tablet Server > final destination
C. iPad > VPN > Web proxy > Tablet Server > Enforce Server > final destination
D. iPad > VPN > Tablet Server > Web proxy > final destination
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is one benefit of using FlexResponse for Network Discover?
A. Response rules trigger varying actions depending on which DLP Agent created the incident.
B. An email can be encrypted as it is being transmitted.
C. Displayed incident data can be redacted from the Data Loss Prevention interface automatically.
D. Customizable incident remediation actions can be manually executed.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is a possible solution when a Network Discover server is unable to scan a remote file server?
A. mount the IPC$ share on the file server
B. verify that the target file server is a Windows 2000 server
C. use the fully qualified name (FQDN) of the server
D. verify that the file server has .NET services running
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two should be used to collect log information from Enforce servers? (Select two.)
A. enable the VontuSNMP service and set the community strings accordingly
B. use the Log Collection and Configuration tool
C. navigate manually to the log directory of the Enforce server installation
D. .access the Enforce Log Viewer page athttps://<VONTU_SRV>/logs?view=true
E. use dbgmonitor from sysinternals to connect to the debug output of the service
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 A user attempts to run Lookup Attributes manually on an incident. On the Incident List page under
Incident Actions, the option for Lookup Attributes is missing. Which section in the Plugins.properties file is
misconfigured?
A. Plugin Execution Chain is undefined.
B. Attribute Lookup parameters is set to "message".
C. Automatic plugin reload is set to false.
D. Automatic Lookup is set to false.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which detection server requires two physical network interface cards?
A. Network Protect
B. Network Discover
C. Endpoint Discover
D. Network Monitor
Answer: B

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NO.9 How can an administrator validate that once a policy is updated and saved it has been enabled on a
specific detection server?
A. check the status of the policy on the policy list page
B. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Alerts
C. check the policy and validate the date and time it was last updated
D. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Events
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the function of the Remote Indexer?
A. to create Index Document Matching (IDM) profiles and Exact Data Matching (EDM) profiles on a
remote server
B. to create Exact Data Matching (EDM) profiles on a remote server
C. to create policy templates on a remote server
D. to create Index Document Matching (IDM) profiles on a remote server
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which profile contains information to enable the VPN on Demand functionality for the Data Loss
Prevention for Tablets solution.?
A. DLP Agent profile
B. SCEP profile
C. iOS profile
D. VPN client profile
Answer: C

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NO.12 A Network Monitor server has been installed and the networking components configured accordingly.
The server is receiving traffic, but fails to detect incidents. Running Wireshark indicates that the desired
traffic is reaching the detection server. What is the most likely cause for this behavior?
A. The mirrored port is sending corrupted packets.
B. The wrong interface is selected in the configuration.
C. The configuration is set to process GET requests.
D. The communication to the database server is interrupted.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which two components are required for the Symantec Data Loss Prevention for Tablets solution in
addition to the Tablet Prevent and Enforce servers? (Select two.)
A. DLP Agent
B. Virtual Private Network Gateway
C. Web Proxy
D. 2010 Exchange Server
E. Mobile Device Management
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 Which product can replace a confidential document residing on a share with a marker file explaining
why the document was removed?
A. Network Discover
B. Network Protect
C. Endpoint Prevent
D. Endpoint Discover
Answer: B

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NO.15 What are two benefits of the Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11.5 security architecture? (Select two.)
A. Communication is initiated by the detection servers inside the firewall.
B. SSL communication is used for user access to the Enforce Platform.
C. Endpoint Agent to Endpoint Server communication uses the Triple Data Encryption Standard (Triple
DES).
D. Confidential information captured by system components is stored using Advanced Encryption
Standards (AES) symmetric keys.
E. All indexed data uploaded into the Enforce Platform is protected with a two-way hash.
Answer: B,D

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NO.16 A scanner fails to return results upon completion of the scan process. Which file should be removed to
eliminate previous scan issues?
A. scanner_typeScanner.cfg
B. Clean.exe
C. ScannerControllerLogging.properties
D. logs
Answer: A

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NO.17 An administrator has completed the example document training process, but is having difficulty deciding
whether or not to accept a VML profile. Where can the administrator find information regarding the quality
of each training set at a granular, per-fold level?
A. machinelearning_training_process.log file
B. machinelearning_native_filereader.log file
C. machinelearning_training.log file
D. machinelearning_native_manager.log file
Answer: C

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NO.18 An approved Endpoint device has been configured and added as an exception to a policy that blocks
the transfer of sensitive data. Data transfers to these approved Endpoint devices are still being blocked.
What should the Data Loss Prevention administrator do to resolve this?
A. disable and enable the policy involved for the changes to take effect
B. edit the exception rule to ensure Match On is set to "Attachments"
C. verify that the proper device ID or class has been entered
D. assign the Endpoint device configuration to all the Endpoint servers
Answer: C

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NO.19 In which two ways can the default listener port for a detection server be modified? (Select two.)
A. through the Enforce user interface under System > Overview
B. by editing the Communication.properties file on a detection server
C. through the Enforce user interface under Manage > Policies
D. by editing the MonitorController.properties file on a detection server
E. by editing the jaas.config file on a detection server
Answer: A,B

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NO.20 Which product must run on a physical server?
A. Endpoint Prevent
B. Network Monitor
C. Enforce D. Network Prevent
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 250-352
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Storage Foundation and HA 6.0 for Windows)
Questions et réponses: 171 Q&As

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NO.1 Which command is used to validate recent changes made to the cluster configuration?
A. hasys -verify
B. haconf -verify
C. hacf -verify
D. hastatus verify
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which utility is used to determine whether a network adapter maintains its connection status in a
system-defined variable?
A. getmac
B. getcomms
C. NICTest
D. ping
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which benefit specific to Campus clusters does Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Windows offer?
A. storage live migration
B. extended attributes
C. replicated data
D. site aware allocation
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which MountV resource attribute should be set to reduce failover time?
A. AutoFSClean
B. CheckFSAccess
C. PurgeStaleMountPoints
D. ForceUnmount
Answer: D

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NO.5 What are the two site-based allocations for the site-aware allocation feature? (Select two.)
A. site-separated allocation
B. site-based allocation
C. site-specific allocation
D. site-confined allocation
E. site-campus allocation
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 An application is under maintenance for a application update on Server2. The application administrator
wants Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) to keep the application running on Server2, but fault the service group
and resource if a resource faults. Which service group attribute can accomplish this?
A. Priority
B. Evacuate
C. Frozen
D. Load
Answer: C

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NO.7 An administrator is designing a cluster in a Microsoft Windows environment with three systems. Two of
the systems are on the 192.168.4.0 Class C public network. The third system is on the
192.169.0.0 Class B public network. The administrator needs to have Microsoft Windows clients access
the service groups independent of the system on which they are running. Which feature or change must
be incorporated into the design?
A. use the Lanman resource in each service group
B. change the servers so they all reside on the same subnet
C. change the servers so they all use the same subnet class
D. use the subnet resource in each service group
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the minimum amount of memory required to make Microsoft Hyper-V virtual machines highly
available with Veritas Storage Foundation and High Availability Solutions 6.0 for Windows?
A. 2GB
B. 3GB
C. 4GB
D. 8GB
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the minimum permission required to install Veritas Storage Foundation and High Availability
Solutions 6.0 for Windows.?
A. Domain Administrator
B. Local Administrator
C. Domain Operator
D. Local User
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which feature is used to improve initial mirror synchronization time?
A. FastResync
B. SmartSnap
C. FastSync
D. SmartMove
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which agent is used to configure high availability for a cluster aware application service if a specific
Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) agent is unavailable?
A. Proxy agent
B. GenericService agent
C. Process agent
D. ServiceMonitor agent
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which disk group type is required for Veritas Storage Foundation for Windows to work with a Microsoft
Failover Cluster?
A. Cluster Dynamic disk group
B. Private Dynamic disk group
C. Secondary Dynamic disk group
D. Primary Dynamic disk group
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which utility is used to back up the private region?
A. vxcbr
B. vxsnap
C. vxassist
D. vxdg
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the default load balancing setting for the Dynamic Multi-Pathing (DMP) Active/Active mode?
A. Balanced Path
B. Round-robin
C. Weighted Paths
D. Least Blocks
Answer: C

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NO.15 Solutions for which application are available in the Storage Foundation - High Availability Solution
Configuration Center?
A. Microsoft Hyper-V
B. Symantec Enterprise Vault
C. Symantec NetBackup
D. VMware vSphere
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which two system components are verified during a pre-installation check for Veritas Storage
Foundation and High Availability Solutions 6.0 for Windows? (Select two.)
A. shared disk storage compatibility
B. total physical memory
C. aggregate CPU performance
D. Active Directory
E. available installation disk space
Answer: B,E

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NO.17 What are two different ways to perform an upgrade for a Veritas cluster? (Select two.)
A. parallel upgrade
B. offline upgrade
C. online upgrade
D. rolling upgrade
E. tiered upgrade
Answer: A,D

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NO.18 What is the recommended number of NICs per system to configure a two node cluster?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which feature is available when Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) is configured in secure mode?
A. SSL to encrypt communication between cluster nodes
B. a single sign-on mechanism to connect to a cluster
C. an isolated and secure environment for running applications
D. root broker configured in a stand-alone system outside cluster
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which process enables the renaming of an imported dynamic disk group named DGName in Veritas
Enterprise Administrator?
A. right-click on disk group object DGName, select rename Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
B. select disk group object DGName, press F2, enter new name
C. right-click on disk object DGName, select Deport Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
D. select disk group object DGName, select Import Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: ST0-151
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11 Technical Assessment )
Questions et réponses: 166 Q&As

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NO.1 A partner responsible for installing a Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 deployment
adds a domain user to the CCS Administrator role. The domain user needs to create new certificates
for multiple,
new CCS Manager systems; however when the user attempts to create a certificate, it fails.
What is a likely reason for the failure?
A. The certificate password has expired.
B. The user is also a member of the CCS User role.
C. The user account password should be the certificate password.
D. The user must be an administrator on the Application Server system.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the recommended initial size and auto growth rate for TempDB on the Reporting
Database Server in a very large scale Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 deployment?
A. 5 GB - 10%
B. 5 GB - 20%
C. 20 GB - 10%
D. 20 GB - 20%
Answer: C

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NO.3 Data Collection jobs can be created from which area?
A. Manage > Queries
B. Manage > Agents
C. Manage > Standards
D. Manage > Control Points
Answer: C

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NO.4 Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 deployment models designed to collect and evaluate
data from 2,000 assets should have two SQL Server systems: one to host the reporting database and
the other to host the production database.
What is the minimum recommended memory configuration for each SQL system?
A. 8 GB
B. 12 GB
C. 16 GB
D. 32 GB
Answer: A

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NO.5 What must be installed on a computer in order to export evaluation results using the context
menu?
A. Crystal Reports
B. Microsoft Excel
C. Adobe Reader
D. ODBC
Answer: B

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NO.6 An organization has 5,000 assets that must be scanned weekly for the next calendar year using
standards containing 350 checks.
What is the approximate amount of Reporting Database disk space required for each standard?
A. 100 GB
B. 300 GB
C. 500 GB
D. 700 GB
Answer: B

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NO.7 During a fresh deployment of Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0, the installer displays
a critical error at the completion of the product installation.
What is the recommended resolution for the failure?
A. use the repair option in add/remove programs
B. uninstall and re-install the product after rectifying the problem
C. get the latest operating system updates and rerun setup.exe
D. ensure the selected service account is a local system administrator
Answer: B

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NO.8 How is the Assess Data Controls business objective met by the Symantec Control Compliance
Suite 11.0?
A. Data Loss Prevention determines data loss from hardware.
B. Data Loss Prevention scans the network for loss of data.
C. Data Loss Prevention analyzes data contamination.
D. Data Loss Prevention is an external data application.
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is a contrasting point between the Assess Procedural Controls and Assess Technical
Controls business objectives?
A. The Assess Procedural Controls business objective allows provision of capacity to assess security
compliance of assets against a set ofstandards, whereas the Assess Technical Controls business
objective uses the CCS Vulnerability Manager to determine external threats.
B. The Assess Procedural Controls business objective uses CCS Vulnerability Manager to determine
external threats, whereas the Assess Technical Controls business objective uses Response
Assessment
Module to control built-in content and mandates.
C. The Assess Procedural Controls business objective allows importing custom data into CCS Policy
Manager, whereas the Assess TechnicalControls business objective uses Response Assessment
Module
to control built-in content and mandates.
D. The Assess Procedural Controls business objective uses the Response Assessment Module to
control
built-in content and mandates, whereasthe Assess Technical Controls business objective allows
provision
of capacity to assess security compliance of assets against a set ofstandards.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which platform is unsupported in message-based data collection?
A. Oracle
B. Exchange
C. NDS
D. Sybase
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which two Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 components must be installed to help
achieve the business objective: Plan for internal and external audits.? (Select two.)
A. CCS Application Server
B. Data Loss Prevention Connector
C. CCS Agent
D. Response Assessment Module
E. CCS Manager
Answer: A,E

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NO.12 Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 Risk Manager provides which functionality?
A. configuration assessment of IT assets
B. evaluation of procedural controls by providing automated web-based questionnaires
C. simplification of the policy management life cycle
D. a view of IT risk related to a business asset such as a business process, group, or function
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-151   ST0-151   ST0-151

NO.13 Which two Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 roles are valid for exception
management?
(Select two.)
A. Exception Administrator
B. Exception Approver
C. Exception Auditor
D. Exception Owner
E. Exception Requestor
Answer: B,E

Symantec examen   ST0-151 examen   ST0-151

NO.14 Which type of credentials must be configured if the asset in a data collection is part of a
Windows Domain?
A. Windows Domain credentials
B. Windows Domain Cache credentials
C. Windows Common credentials
D. Windows Collector credentials
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-151 examen   ST0-151   ST0-151 examen

NO.15 Computers hosting certain Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 components should be
colocated on the same LAN segment.
Which group of CCS components must be topologically deployed together?
A. Application Server, Production Database, and CCS Manager Collector
B. Application Server, CCS Manager Load Balancer, and CCS Manager Collector
C. CCS Manager Collector, CCS Manager Reporter, and CCS Manager Evaluator
D. CCS Manager Load Balancer, CCS Manager Reporter, and CCS Manager Evaluator
Answer: D

certification Symantec   ST0-151   certification ST0-151

NO.16 Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 feature allows users to view high-level
information graphically using a web browser?
A. Compliance Reports
B. Remediation Reports
C. Tiered Dashboards
D. Dynamic Dashboards
Answer: D

certification Symantec   ST0-151 examen   ST0-151   ST0-151

NO.17 In which two ways are the Assess Procedural Controls business objectives met by Symantec
Control Compliance Suite 11.0? (Select two.)
A. The Response Assessment Module provides a set of standards to check against user policies.
B. The Response Assessment Module contains procedural controls to integrate content and
directive.
C. The Response Assessment Module integrates with the policy module.
D. The Response Assessment Module is an external data application.
E. The Response Assessment Module is an entitlement assessment application.
Answer: B,D

Symantec   certification ST0-151   certification ST0-151   ST0-151 examen

NO.18 Which feature allows temporary permissions that exempt an asset from following an
organizational
policy for a specific time period?
A. Exceptions
B. Exemptions
C. Allowances
D. Exclusions
Answer: A

Symantec examen   certification ST0-151   ST0-151   ST0-151   ST0-151

NO.19 A customer needs to map internal requirements documents to mandates and controls. The
customer also needs to track who has read these documents.
Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 module should the customer use?
A. Symantec Control Compliance Suite Assessment Manager
B. Symantec Control Compliance Suite Risk Manager
C. Symantec Control Compliance Suite Vulnerability Manager
D. Symantec Control Compliance Suite Policy Manager
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-151   ST0-151   ST0-151   certification ST0-151

NO.20 What are two functions of the Control Compliance Suite 11.0 (CCS) Directory? (Select two.)
A. It stores the asset data and user rights.
B. It manages the system scheduling and workflow.
C. It hosts the certificate authority for the CCS system.
D. It manages web-based dashboards.
E. It executes all standards-based jobs.
Answer: D,E

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Code d'Examen: 510-033
Nom d'Examen: Sybase (Sybase Replication Server Administrator Pro Exam)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following are TRUE regarding the rs_ticket_report stored procedure located in a replicate
database? (Choose 3)
A. Must be modified to place its output into a results table
B. Is used to update the rs_ticket counter
C. To save the output of the procedure, a table must be created in the replicate database
D. Reports on every change of data to the replicate database
E. Accepts timestamp and byte information for transactions
Answer: ACE

Sybase   510-033 examen   510-033

NO.2 Which of the following are TRUE about request functions? (Choose 2)
A. A function replicate definition is needed for both the primary Replication Server and the replicate
Replication Server.
B. A function Replication Definition is created in the Primary Replication Server.
C. Request functions do not use subscriptions.
D. Request functions do not have to be marked for replication.
Answer: BC

Sybase examen   510-033 examen   510-033 examen

NO.3 The command admin config is used to display information related to which parameters below?(Choose
3)
A. route
B. subscription
C. logical connection
D. physical connection
E. Replication Definition
Answer: ACD

Sybase   510-033   510-033 examen   certification 510-033   510-033 examen

NO.4 Which statements are TRUE about replicating tables with encrypted columns in ASE?
A. Replication Server automatically generates separate column encryption keys for the replicate
database.
B. The DBA must manually create the same set of column encryption keys in all databases in the
replication system.
C. Replication Server replicates the encrypted data and the column encryption keys to the replicate
databases without decryption.
D. Replication Server replicates encrypted data as plaintext, so SSL is required to protect the data.
Answer: C

Sybase   510-033   certification 510-033   510-033

NO.5 What action must be taken to properly affect a change to a RepAgent configuration parameter in a
running Replication Server System?
A. The RepAgent connection to the primary database must be suspended before a change is made to the
parameter and then the connection must be resumed.
B. The RepAgent thread must be stopped before a change is made to the parameter and then restarted.
C. The parameter can be modified at any time and the RepAgent connection to the primary database
must be suspended then be resumed before the modification is applied.
D. The parameter can be modified at any time and the RepAgent thread must be stopped and restarted
before the modification is applied.
Answer: D

Sybase   510-033 examen   certification 510-033

NO.6 A Request Function requires which of the following?
A. Function Replication Definition
B. Replication Definition
C. Subscription
D. Publication
Answer: A

Sybase   510-033 examen   510-033

NO.7 Which of the following operations can NOT be replicated? (Choose 2)
A. Drop table
B. Reorg rebuild
C. Slow bcp
D. Truncate table
E. Update statistics
Answer: BE

Sybase   510-033   510-033

NO.8 Which table in the master database contains the secondary truncation point?
A. sysprocesses
B. syslogs
C. spt_values
D. syslogshold
Answer: D

Sybase   certification 510-033   510-033

NO.9 A route between two Replication Servers represents?(Choose 2)
A. one way data flow.
B. a connection between a Replication Server and a replicate dataserver.
C. one outbound queue that can map to several Replication Server system queues.
D. a connection between a Replication Server and a primary dataserver.
Answer: AC

Sybase examen   certification 510-033   510-033

NO.10 Which of the following thread types is responsible for serializing transactions?
A. DIST
B. DSI
C. RSI
D. SQM
E. SQT
Answer: E

Sybase examen   510-033   certification 510-033   510-033 examen   510-033   510-033 examen

NO.11 Which of the following statements are NOT true about stored procedure replication?
A. Request functions are replicated from the primary to the replicate database.
B. Use sp_setrepproc to mark a stored procedure for replication.
C. Request functions cannot be executed in a Warm Standby environment.
D. Request functions do not require a subscription.
Answer: A

certification Sybase   certification 510-033   510-033   510-033 examen   510-033 examen

NO.12 Given the following table and stored procedure:
create table t (a int)
create procedure p
@param int
as
insert t values (@param)
A Replication Definition exists for table 't'. Table 't' and stored procedure 'p' are both marked for replication.
What will be replicated when the following code is executed without errors:
begin transaction
insert t values (100)
execute p 101
commit
execute p 102
A. One 'execute' operation is replicated
B. One 'insert' and one 'execute' operations are replicated
C. One 'insert' and two 'execute' operations are replicated
D. Three 'insert' and two 'execute' operations are replicated
Answer: C

Sybase   510-033   510-033   510-033   certification 510-033

NO.13 Which of the following are TRUE about a RepAgent? (Choose 2)
A. Moves the primary truncation point
B. Is an Adaptive Server Enterprise thread
C. Applies transactions to the replicate database
D. Reads the primary database transaction log
E. Maintains referential integrity
Answer: BD

Sybase   510-033   certification 510-033

NO.14 Which of the following converts transactions forwarded to Replication Server into LTL (Log Transfer
Language)?
A. maint user
B. RepAgent
C. primary user
D. rssd maint user
Answer: B

Sybase   510-033 examen   510-033   certification 510-033

NO.15 Which RSSD counter table holds the description of a sampling period?
A. rs_statcounters
B. rs_statdetail
C. rs_statrun
D. rs_subscriptions
Answer: C

Sybase   510-033 examen   510-033   510-033   510-033

NO.16 Which errorlog code indicates a message is reporting a stopped thread?
A. E
B. F
C. I
D. H
E. N
Answer: D

certification Sybase   510-033   510-033   510-033

NO.17 In order to store output from the admin stats command for further analysis, you must
A. set up a repository table in the RSSD.
B. turn off the RSSD RepAgent.
C. run admin stats with the keyword ave
D. increase the size of the SQT.
E. run admin stats with the keyword isplay
Answer: C

Sybase   510-033   510-033   510-033 examen   510-033 examen

NO.18 Where are function Replication Definitions created for request functions?
A. Primary database
B. Primary Replication Server
C. Replicate database
D. Replicate Replication Server
Answer: B

Sybase   certification 510-033   certification 510-033   510-033   certification 510-033

NO.19 Which of the following tables contain the Replication Server exception log?(Choose 3)
A. rs_systext
B. rs_excepthdr
C. rs_msgs
D. rs_locater
E. rs_exceptscmd
F. rs_recovery
Answer: ABE

Sybase examen   510-033 examen   certification 510-033

NO.20 The admin who, sqm command is executed at the Replication Server and displays the following output.
Info First Seg.Block Last Seg.Block
Next Read
133:0 ReplicateDS.RDB 4.3 4.3
4.4
Which of the following are correct? (Choose 2)
A. The queue is empty and is ready for new transactions.
B. The queue is behind and contains lots of transactions that need to be processed.
C. The queue is full and the stable device should be enlarged.
D. The queue is an inbound queue.
E. The queue is an outbound queue.
Answer: AE

Sybase examen   510-033   510-033   510-033 examen

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SUN 310-015 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 310-015
Nom d'Examen: SUN (SUN Certified SYSTEM ADMINISTRATOR FOR SOLARIS 9 PART II)
Questions et réponses: 299 Q&As

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NO.1 The auto_home automount map is an example of which type of map?
A. xfn
B. direct
C. master
D. generic
E. indirect
Answer: E

SUN   310-015   310-015

NO.2 You are working on a system connected to the network. You are attempting to access a currently
mounted NFS directory. Your system displays the message: nfs mount: host1: : NFS: Service not
responding nfs mount: retrying: /usr/share/man What can you do to solve this problem?
A. ensure that nfsd is running on the NFS server
B. ensure that mountd is running on the NFS server
C. send a HUP signal to inetd process on the NFS server
D. send a HUP signal to the rpcbind process on the NFS server
Answer: A

SUN   certification 310-015   certification 310-015   certification 310-015

NO.3 In which situation will Solaris Volume Manager volumes continue to function normally in the event of
the corruption of one copy of its state database?
A. Solaris Volume Manager volumes will function normally if the master copy of the state database is not
corrupted.
B. Solaris Volume Manager volumes will function normally if the copy of the state database on the boot
disk is available.
C. Solaris Volume Manager volumes will function normally if no more than a single copy of the state
database is corrupted.
D. Solaris Volume Manager volumes will function normally if more than half of the copies of the state
database are available.
Answer: D

SUN   310-015   certification 310-015   310-015   310-015 examen

NO.4 Solaris Volume Manager offers advantages over storing data in traditional disk slices. What are two of
these advantages? (Choose two.)
A. It facilitates the rotational interleaving of data.
B. It enables the definition of disk usage patterns.
C. It offers the possibility of significant performance improvement.
D. It manages the data to ensure that disk failure does not automatically lead to data loss.
Answer: CD

SUN   310-015   310-015

NO.5 Which command should be used to create a file system on a virtual volume (d0) under Solaris Volume
Manager control?
A. newfs /dev/rdsk/d0
B. newfs /dev/rdsk/md/d0 C. newfs /dev/md/rdsk/d0
D. newfs -F sds /dev/rdsk/d0
Answer: C

certification SUN   310-015   310-015   310-015 examen

NO.6 What can be added to the /etc/vfstab file to automatically mount the /var directory from the NFS server
saturn onto the mount point /test during boot?
A. /var - /test nfs - yes -
B. saturn:/var - /test - yes -
C. saturn:/var - /test nfs - yes
D. saturn:/var /test nfs yes
E. saturn:/var - /test nfs - yes -
Answer: E

SUN   310-015   certification 310-015   certification 310-015   310-015 examen

NO.7 You want to automatically mount an NFS resource. You also want to mount the NFS resource so that
if the server becomes unavailable, and the client reboots, system initialization will continue without waiting
for the resource to mount.Which mount option can be added to the client's /etc/vfstab file to achieve this?
A. fg
B. ro
C. bg
D. intr
E. soft
F. hard
Answer: C

SUN examen   310-015 examen   310-015   310-015   310-015

NO.8 You have two 50-MByte UFS file systems, one located on a single disk, and the other located on a
RAID 1 mirror. Both file systems are full. The RAID 1 mirror uses a round-robin read policy. Statistically,
which is true of the RAID 1 mirror when reading data?
A. The mirror is faster.
B. The mirror is slower.
C. Round-robin read policies are not allowed.
D. The mirror and single disk exhibit the same performance.
Answer: A

SUN examen   310-015   310-015

NO.9 Interlace size is a tunable parameter associated with which three levels of RAID? (Choose three.)
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 0+1
Answer: ACD

SUN   310-015   310-015

NO.10 You have a system used for application development. The process app-rev23 owned by user
epiphylla terminates abnormally. Which two effects can the root user configure? (Choose two.)
A. The process app-rev23 produces no core file at all.
B. The process app-rev23 produces a core file without the string "core" appearing anywhere within the file
name.
C. The process app-rev23 produces a global core file readable by any user in a global /var/corefiles
directory.
D. The process app-rev23 produces a total of three core files, one in the current directory of the process,
one in epiphylla's home directory, and one in a global /var/corefiles directory.
Answer: AB

SUN examen   310-015   certification 310-015   310-015   310-015 examen

NO.11 You are working on a system connected to the network. You attempt to access a directory which you
know is providedto your system using NFS, and which you have not accessed for some time. Your
system displays the message: stale NFS file handle What is a possible cause of this problem?
A. The lockd daemon on the local system is no longer running.
B. The mountd daemon on the local system has out of date configuration information.
C. The automountd daemon has not been informed of changes to the automount maps.
D. The file or directory has been removed on the NFS server without the client's knowledge.
Answer: D

SUN   310-015 examen   310-015

NO.12 Under which two conditions will the automounter automatically mount resources listed in an AutoFS
direct map? (Choose two.)
A. only if the mount point has first been created
B. only if the resources are to be mounted read-only
C. only if the reference used in the direct map uses relative path names
D. only if an entry for the direct map has been added to the master map
E. only if the reference used in the direct map uses absolute path names
Answer: DE

SUN   310-015 examen   certification 310-015   310-015

NO.13 You have Solaris Volume Manager installed on your system and want to create your first metadevice.
What initial action must you take?
A. run a command to create the first state database
B. run a utility to add a license to enable SVM for Solaris 9
C. run a command to initialize the configuration metadevice
D. run the vxinstall utility to initialize the volume manager software for use
E. create a soft partition using the -s initialize option with the appropriate command
Answer: A

SUN   certification 310-015   310-015   310-015   310-015 examen

NO.14 You are receiving error messages that the /lard file system is full. You check and see that it has a
large file called swapfile. Your system has more than enough swap space. You suspect that the file is in
use as swap space. Which sequence of commands confirms that the file was in use as swap space, and
helps correct the file system problem?
A. swap -r /lard/swapfile ; rm /lard/swapfile
B. swap -l ; swap -d /lard/swapfile ; rm /lard/swapfile
C. swap -l ; rm /lard/swapfile ; swap -d /lard/swapfile
D. swap -l ; swap -r /lard/swapfile ; rm /lard/swapfile
Answer: B

SUN   310-015   certification 310-015

NO.15 While configuring NIS on a system, you execute the command string:# domainname
testlab.Region.Org.COM Which two statements about this command are true? (Choose two.)
A. The server's name is testlab, and it resides in the region.org.com domain.
B. Executing this command populates the /etc/defaultdomain file with the domain name.
C. The domain name is case sensitive, and must be configured exactly as specified on this
command-line.
D. The domain name is the entire character string testlab.Region.Org.COM, and no DNS domain is
specified.
Answer: CD

SUN   310-015 examen   310-015   certification 310-015   310-015 examen
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NO.16 The default run level is 3 and the host is configured as an NFS server with valid entries in
/etc/dfs/dfstab. Which two command strings restart NFS services? (Choose two.)
A. init 6
B. pkill -HUP inetd
C. /etc/init.d/nfs.server restart
D. /etc/init.d/nfs.server stop;/etc/init.d/nfs.server start
Answer: AD

SUN   310-015   310-015

NO.17 An inexperienced administrator reports to you that they would like to see if a system is a functioning
native LDAPclient. You suggest that they run a command to verify that the system is configured as a
native LDAP client. Whichcommand should you suggest?
A. ldaplist
B. ldapclient -v
C. ldapadd client
D. ldapsearch client
Answer: A

certification SUN   310-015   310-015

NO.18 The /etc/dfs/dfstab file on your Solaris system contains the entries: share -o log=global /export/home
share -o ro /opt/NSCPcom What is the purpose of the entry global?
A. It specifies that all NFS transactions are logged in the /var/adm/global file.
B. It specifies the tag to send to the syslogd daemon when logging the NFS share.
C. It specifies the logging configuration to use from the NFS logging configuration file.
D. It specifies the file in the /export/home directory in which to record NFS mount requests.
Answer: C

SUN   certification 310-015   certification 310-015

NO.19 Which two are functions of an NFS client? (Choose two.)
A. runs the nfsd daemon
B. makes resources available over the network
C. mounts remote resources across the network
D. is configured using the /etc/dfs/dfstab file
E. mounts a remote resource and uses it as though it were local
Answer: CE

SUN   certification 310-015   certification 310-015   310-015   310-015

NO.20 After creating and adding additional swap space, what should you do to ensure that the swap space is
available following subsequent reboots?
A. You add it as a line entry to the /etc/vfstab file.
B. You modify the startup scripts to include a swap add command.
C. The additional swap space cannot be made available following subsequent reboots.
D. No additional steps are required because the necessary changes are made to the startup file when the
swap space is added.
Answer: A

SUN   310-015 examen   310-015 examen   310-015

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SUN 310-811, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: 310-811
Nom d'Examen: SUN (Sun Certified MySQL 5.0 Database Administrator Part II)
Questions et réponses: 138 Q&As

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NO.1 Consider the following query:
GRANT ALL ON world.* TO 'web'@'hostname'
What privileges would this give this user?
A. All privileges including GRANT.
B. All privileges except GRANT.
C. SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE and DELETE.
D. ALL can not be used when granting privileges.
Answer: B

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NO.2 When working with stored routines, which of the following are true in regards to the effect on the
amount of data exchanged between client and server?
A. They may increase the amount of data exchanged.
B. They can help reduce the amount of data exchanged.
C. They have no effect on the amount of data exchanged.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following best describes why InnoDB tables should always have primary keys and why
they should be short?
A. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate tables, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
B. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate table rows, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
C. Because InnoDB stores pointers in a log to all the primary keys and shorter keys make this log smaller.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Consider the following:
mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT Name FROM Country WHERE Code = 'CAN'\G
*************************** 1. row ***************************
id: 1
select_type: SIMPLE
table: Country
type: const
possible_keys: PRIMARY
key: PRIMARY
key_len: 3
ref: const
rows: 1
Extra:
Which of the following best describes the meaning of the value of the type column?
A. The table has exactly one row.
B. Several rows may be read from the table.
C. Only one row of all its rows need to be read.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following statements about the slow query log is true?
A. The slow query log will always contain just slow queries.
B. The slow query log may not always contain just slow queries.
C. The slow query log always logs more than just slow queries.
Answer: B

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NO.6 For which of the following objects can privileges be specified?
A. Host
B. Global
C. Database
D. Table
E. Column
F. Row
Answer: BCDE

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NO.7 You have been granted SELECT, INSERT and DELETE privileges on the table city in the world
database. You log in, and exercise all your privileges without any problems.
While you are still connected and doing work, the administrator removes your DELETE privileges and
informs you by mail that you can no longer delete from table city.
Being skeptical, you decided to test your privileges and realize that you still have them all. What is are the
most likely causes of this?
A. The administrator forgot to revoke your UPDATE privilege
B. The administrator forgot to revoke your SELECT privilege
C. The administrator removed the DELETE privilege by performing an UPDATE directly on the
mysql.table_priv table
D. The administrator did not execute FLUSH PRIVILEGES
Answer: CD

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NO.8 Assuming that the account 'joe'@'%' does not already exist on the server, executing the statement
mysql> CREATE USER 'joe'@'%' IDENTIFIED BY 'sakila'
will have the following consequences:
A. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. However, clients cannot connect using this account
until further privileges have been assigned to the account.
B. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. Clients may connect to the server using this account,
but will not be able to access any databases, tables or stored routines
C. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. Clients may connect to the server using this account
and execute stored routines, but will not be able to access any databases or tables
D. Nothing; there is no such command as CREATE USER
Answer: B

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NO.9 How can stored routines be used to check for constraints or legality of incoming data?
A. They can make use of the VALIDATE DEFINER setting.
B. They can not be used to check for constraints or legality of data.
C. They can check and only perform an action if the incoming values match a specified value.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What are reasons to prefer using GRANT and REVOKE statements over editing the privilege tables
directly?
A. Using GRANT and REVOKE allows the server to figure out the right tables and do all the appropriate
work
B. All grant tables in memory are immediately updated on GRANT and REVOKE
C. Making changes directly to the grant tables, one must remember to execute flush privileges to make
the
changes take effect
D. GRANT and REVOKE statements allow you to do more fine-grained tuning of user privileges than
does
editing the grant tables directly.
E. None of the above
Answer: BCD

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NO.11 Which of the following best describes how the relay log works?
A. It records the times when the slave connects to the master.
B. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is recorded in the relay log first and processed
later.
C. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is processed first and then recorded in the relay
log.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Consider the following GRANT statement:
GRANT USAGE ON *.* TO 'kofi'@'localhost' IDENTIFIED BY 'password'
What is the implications of executing that statement?
A. Kofi can access all database objects.
B. Kofi can access all his tables.
C. Kofi can display server system and status variables.
D. Kofi can grant privileges to others.
E. Kofi can access all database objects belonging to localhost.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Given the following MyISAM table structure:
mysql> desc city;
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+
| Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra |
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+
| ID | int(11) | | PRI | NULL | auto_increment |
| Name | char(35) | | | | |
| CountryCode | char(3) | | | | |
| District | char(20) | | | | |
| Population | int(11) | | MUL | 0 | |
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+
and the following SQL statement:
SELECT Population
FROM city
WHERE Population = 10000
ORDER BY Population
LIMIT 5;
which of the following statements best describes how MySQL optimizer executes the query?
A. The optimizer uses the primary key column ID to read the index values, then uses the index on
Population to filter the results. The optimizer will always choose to use a unique index first, then use a
secondary index if available.
B. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search and filter the WHERE clause. A
temporary table is used to perform a filesort on the results, and then only 5 records are returned to the
client.
C. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search, filter and sort the Population column,
then returns 5 records to the client. The optimizer does not need to read the data rows, and can return
values from the index only, because the index contains just integer values that form a leftmost prefix for
the key.
D. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search, filter and sort the Population column,
and returns 5 records to the client. The optimizer does not need to read the data rows, and can return
values from the index only because only those columns where specified in the SELECT statement.
E. The optimizer will never read data from disk, since MySQL caches both data and index in the key
buffer.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Privileges for using stored routines can be specified at the following levels:
A. Server-wide
B. Per database
C. Per routine
D. The ability to use stored procedures is not governed by the privilege system.
Answer: ABC

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NO.15 The stored function year_to_date is created by the 'root'@'localhost' account as follows:
CREATE FUNCTION year_to_date ()
RETURNS DECIMAL(10,2)
SQL SECURITY DEFINER
BEGIN
...
END;
Within the routine body, a number of calculations are made on data in the financials table and the
calculated value is returned. The only account which can access the financials table is 'root'@'localhost'.
If a client connects with the account 'joe'@'localhost' and calls the year_to_date function, what will
happen?
A. The function will always execute as if it was 'root'@'localhost' that invoked it since SQL SECURITY
DEFINER has been specified.
B. The function will not execute, as 'joe'@'localhost' does not have access to the financials table
C. The function will not execute as SQL SECURITY DEFINER has been specified. It would execute if
instead SQL SECURITY INVOKER had been specified
D. If the account 'joe'@'localhost' has the EXECUTE privilege on year_to_date, the function will complete
successfully
Answer: D

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NO.16 With replication, what on the master is used to send commands to the slave?
A. The relay log.
B. The binary log.
C. The SQL Thread.
Answer: B

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NO.17 How can the SHOW PROCESSLIST command be helpful when optimizing queries?
A. It shows if a query is using an index or not.
B. It shows how the server processes a query.
C. If checked periodically, it can reveal queries that cause other queries to hang.
D. It shows the percentage of processing power that each query is using on a server.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following statements are true of how access control is based?
A. It is based off of an access control table in the mysql database.
B. It is based off of grant tables in the mysql database.
C. It is based off of an access control list stored in the data directory.
D. It is based off of an access control list stored inside the .frm files of each table.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Is the following statement true or false? The username you use to connect to MySQL must be the same
as the login used to access the operating system.
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following statements are required to create a key cache of 4 MB, assign the MyISAM table
world.City to it and preload the index?
A. mysql> SET GLOBAL city_cache.key_buffer_size = 4194304;mysql> CACHE INDEX world.City IN
city_cache;mysql> LOAD INDEX INTO CACHE world.City;
B. mysql> ALTER TABLE world.city KEY_CACHE = 4194304;
C. mysql> CREATE CACHE FOR world.City SIZE = 4194304;
D. It is not possible to create a key cache for a specific MyISAM table, only the global key cache can be
used.
Answer: A

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SNIA S10-101 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: S10-101
Nom d'Examen: SNIA (Snia Storage Network Foundations Exam)
Questions et réponses: 163 Q&As

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NO.1 Common enterprise tape cartridges such as LTO or DLT contain which components?
A.leader pin, write protect switch, supply reel, access door
B.leader pin, read/write head assembly, supply reel, access door
C.leader pin, write protect switch, supply reel, pickup reel
D.leader pin, read/write head assembly, supply reel, pickup reel
Correct:A

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NO.2 What is a common type of symmetric key ciphering when securing stored information?
A.DEC
B.AES
C.Turing
D.SSL
Correct:B

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NO.3 Which hardware component provides the interface between the storage network and the server
backplane?
A.gigabit link module
B.interposer card
C.inter-switch link
D.host bus adapter
Correct:D

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NO.4 What describes RAID 0?
A.mirroring
B.parallel access with parity
C.striping
D.independent access with interleaved parity
Correct:C

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NO.5 Which is considered tier 2 storage in a datacenter with three (3) storage tiers?
A.tape vault
B.Fibre Channel disk array with dual controllers
C.Nearline storage
D.intelligent storage virtualization
Correct:C

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NO.6 What is the maximum distance of a 50-micrometer multimode fiber with a 850nm shortwave
laser at 1 Gbps?
A.500 meters
B.300 meters
C.150 meters
D.70 meters
Correct:A

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NO.7 Which two have World Wide Names? (Choose two.)
A.switches
B.disk arrays
C.zone sets
D.servers
E.HBAs
Correct:A E

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NO.8 You no longer have any port availability in the company's switch fabric. There is a
decommissioned switch available. When it is installed, there is a segmentation error. What is the
cause of the problem?
A.The wrong cable type was used to connect the switches.
B.The cable was connected into the wrong port on the target switch.
C.A duplicate zone name exists on the switch you are adding.
D.The domain priority is inconsistent.
Correct:C

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NO.9 Which two RAID types use parity for data protection? (Choose two.)
A.RAID 0
B.RAID 1
C.RAID 3
D.RAID 5
E.RAID 10
Correct:C D

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NO.10 What is the basic order of a snapshot creation process?
A.flush file system, take snapshot, backup the volume, release the application
B.flush file system, quiesce the application, take snapshot, backup the volume
C.quiesce the application, flush file system, take snapshot, backup the volume
D.flush file system, quiesce the application, flush the file system, take snapshot, backup the volume
Correct:C

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NO.11 What is a characteristic of synchronous remote replication?
A.Source is minutes ahead of the remote replication.
B.Source buffers the data and sends it depending on a cycle time.
C.Source and remote replication always have identical data.
D.Synchronous replication only used for extended distances.
Correct:C

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NO.12 What might be considered the most important criteria when designing an OLTP implementation
for a financial services customer?
A.data integrity
B.data redundancy
C.disk latency of less than 15ms
D.high availability
Correct:A

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NO.13 Which two are common characteristics of DAS? (Choose two.)
A.direct access to data is available from single server
B.only available through SCSI/SAS interfaces
C.storage capacity is captive to a single server
D.storage is accessible by any host anywhere on the network
E.attached to the host computer by a switch
Correct:A C

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NO.14 What is the maximum throughput of a 4 phy SAS wide port that has 3 Gbps links?
A.300 MBps
B.1200 MBps
C.1800 MBps
D.2400 MBps
Correct:D

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NO.15 Which statement defines Serial-Attached SCSI (SAS) and SATA connectivity?
A.SAS storage devices can plug into SATA backplanes.
B.SATA storage devices can not plug into SAS backplanes.
C.SAS backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
D.SATA backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
Correct:C

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NO.16 What are two advantages of IP storage networking? (Choose two.)
A.greater security exposure
B.lower cost infrastructure
C.can use existing network management tools
D.lower CPU overhead
Correct:B C

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NO.17 What are two advantages of IP storage networking? (Choose two.)
A.Uses existing Ethernet technologies.
B.Supports up to 126 devices.
C.Lowers propagation delay.
D.Leverages system administrator knowledge.
Correct:A D

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NO.18 From a business perspective a well managed archive is particularly important in which situation?
A.in the event of loss of power at the primary data center
B.when an administrator accidentally formats the wrong file system
C.in the event of litigation
D.when a user accidentally deletes an important email
Correct:C

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NO.19 Which tier provides highest availability and highest performance?
A.tier 4
B.tier 3
C.tier 2
D.tier 1
Correct:D

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NO.20 What is the function of the "head" on the disk drive?
A.It is used to read or write data onto the disk media.
B.It is used to seek to the area where the requested data is located.
C.It is where the data is stored or retrieved.
D.It is a standard unit of measurement on the disk media.
Correct:A

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